We all know that there are different methods of interpreting Scripture. Some “spiritualize” it and attribute it to allegory. Others, such as me and you interpret Scripture “literally, historically and grammatically.” Is there any place in Scripture where God told us how he wanted us to interpret his Word? How did we come to the consensus that Scripture was to be interpreted “this” way as opposed to “that” way?

We believe there will be a peace treaty (in Israel) because Gog and the other nations will come against Israel when they are living securely in their land. So when Gog comes against Israel will it be after the peace treaty has begun?

And if we believe the covenant, as predicted in Daniel is the covenant made or confirmed by the one who is or who will be the Antichrist, is that the covenant for 7 yrs. that brings peace for at least 31/2 yrs?

If all this is so, my question is this. Currently we are hearing the promise of a peace treaty in the Middle East, but it seems it is taking the efforts of many to bring it about. (of course, I assume also it might fall apart or not come about)

If this indeed becomes the covenant of many, how will we know the one who actually confirms it? I take from Scripture that this will be one person? Is the Rapture to take place before we see the Antichrist as a man of lawlessness or will we still be here to see him as a man of peace first? I agree that all is speculation until we actually see it happen, if we do. But anyway, are you up to give a take on this?

Thanks a lot. You can tell I value your Bible Study and answers based on them.

I have a couple of questions I need your help to find answers to.

1. How long has mankind been on this earth? 2. Is there any information in the Bible to help us answer the above question?

I would really appreciate your help to answer the above questions.

Are there any Bible prophecies that predict the attempts at dividing Jerusalem and it’s outcome?

While subbing in a Sunday School class a member declared that Allah and The God of the Bible were the same. He said that Muslims, Christians, and Jews worship the same God by other names. I know that Allah arises out of the pagan gods of Babylon but I need back-up proof when I challenge that statement. Can you help me once more?

In the article (The 3 Questions Of Matt. 24) a statement was made: “the absence of any reference to the Church shows us that we won’t be here during the time He was talking about.”

How to you validate this principle of omission as truth? It certainly is not found in the Bible as a teaching. If it is tell me where. I can use that principle anywhere in the Bible and it proves nothing, it seems to me to be only conjecture. Not everybody that witnessed the events in the Bible were mentioned by the writers. Therefore it wasn’t important enough to know or God did not want us to know. Some things are a mystery and should stay that way unless there is positive proof of subsequent revelation in the Bible.

I have read various articles regarding the Tithe and have found that the New Testament does not include tithing like it is in the Old Testament and especially the way it is explained in Malachi. Jesus has redeemed us from the curse of the law and tithing is in the law. Jesus taught to give as you purpose in your heart not grudgingly or of necessity.

This means that all that we have belongs to God and we are stewards of these things. The way we handle these things will determine our love towards God. The new covenant in Christ is “what is yours is mine and what is mine is yours”. Is it correct then to say that 10% should not be preached but rather that all is Gods and not only the 10%. By doing this, if God wants us to give all we have, then we need to do so because of the covenant we have with him.

I have been reading your section on spiritual gifts & I know from reading the Word that, as a Christian, I have a gift. How do I find out what my gift is? The church I attend is “big” on speaking in tongues & at one time I thought I had received this gift – not so sure anymore. The one I desire is the gift of prophecy … is that desire indicative of prophesy being my gift? Any insight would be appreciated. By the way, I assume teaching is your gift?

One pastor recently said,

“In the Millennium, we who will be raptured will live in earthly mansions that are already on Earth, and the first preferences of occupying them are ours as rulers with Christ!”

Is this true? According to 1 Thes. 4:16-17 and 1 Corinthians 15:52 – after Rapture, we will be in glorified spirit bodies which do not require physical accommodations on earth, right? We can be anywhere in the universe in a split second. It is mentioned in the Scripture that the Lord Jesus, after resurrection, appeared at least eleven times. There is no record of the Lord Jesus having a physical accommodation all these times. I believe spirit bodies do not require any accommodation as the Lord did not have a residential address after resurrection, until ascension.

Is there any interchange between the natural people populating earth (who lived through the trib) and the OT resurrected saints working in the temple with Jesus and the church resurrected saints in New Jerusalem? Will the natural people see and talk with the resurrected saints?