Over the years I’ve heard a few people say that the false prophet would be Jewish. The only reasoning for this was that the Jews would not accept him unless he was Jewish. Several days ago while watching a Christian video the speaker said in passing that the false prophet would come from the tribe of Dan. Is there any scriptural basis to think that this could be so? Many thanks for sharing your gift to help us all.

I have a question which I have always wondered about. When the woman caught in adultery was about to be stoned, the Bible says that Jesus wrote something in the dirt. What was it that he wrote, and why did He do that? Thank you very much for your answer to this question and to all the other questions that you have answered for me and so many others through your daily posts.

God has spoken to me through your website many times. GOD bless you. I have a query. Normally in churches at the start of a year, we receive a promise card with a verse in it. According to our situation or the problems we face, these verses give us hope. But sometimes things will happen in the other way. So, we feel that the promise word which we received is not from the Lord. Later we doubt, whether they came from GOD? Do I need to get again this promise card next year and hope on it?

I wish to ask a question about the lost ark.Where could it be possibly hidden? Could it be that the Jews have not found the ark, and that’s why they are delaying building the third temple? I look forward to your enlightened insight!

Thank you for your ministry and the many answers and teachings with which I’ve been blessed. Recently I was asked a question that I could not answer Biblically- Let’s say a man walks into his house only to witness another man raping his sister, he then grabs his gun and fires off three rounds killing the rapist., Now assuming that he’s fully within the law (owning the weapon and shooting at the intruder/rapist as allowed in many states) has this man (a born again believer in Christ) committed a sin? Are we not commanded in the Word “Thou Shall Not Kill”, and if it’s not a sin, when and where in Scripture was that commandment rescinded?

I have failed miserably over the years as a Christian. As Jesus said Anyone who wants to follow Him must deny himself and pick up his cross. I know I do not measure up. Maybe here and there I’ve really tried to do the Lord’s will but then I fail again. I used to work as an Lpn in a hospital. I’m disabled now. I didn’t confront my co workers and ask them did they know Jesus as their Savior because I didn’t want to make waves. Is this being ashamed of the Lord? If it is, will He tell me to depart from Him? I more then anything want to be like Jesus now. But now I am house bound. I only see my husband and son. I have just made an effort to start a web site telling people that God’s gift of Salvation is Free because this Lordship Salvation disturbs me terribly. I want other Christians to realize that our salvation is a free gift and can’t be earned by anything we do but I am still terribly afraid I haven’t denied myself enough. I haven’t picked up my cross when I should have. I am very upset and all I can do is beg the Lord’s forgiveness for being such a poor witness during my life as a Christian. Please let me know what you think about what I’ve written and thank you again for your help.

In Mark 16:7 it says, “But go, tell His disciples–and Peter–that He is going before you into Galilee; there you will see Him, as He said to you.”

When the Angel of the Lord told the ladies this in Mark 16:7, I wonder sometimes why the Angel said it this way? It would almost seem as though at that point Peter wasn’t a disciple. Even though I know that is not the case. I wonder why Peter’s name was separate. Was it because Jesus said upon this rock I will build my church? Thanks for the insight, I love your website and the wisdom of your teaching.

You may have answered these questions somewhere that I haven’t been able to find on your site. But I would appreciate an explanation concerning verses Matt. 7:21 – 23. Jesus is saying that not everyone who calls him “Lord” will enter the kingdom of heaven – if they call him Lord – doesn’t that indicate that they believe?

Also James 2:19 which states that “…Even the demons believe and tremble”.

And Matt. 8:28 when the demons in the two men cried out saying “What have we to do with You, Jesus, You Son of God?”……’ Doesn’t that indicate that they believed?

I was brought up on the OSAS belief but these verses have always troubled me. I would appreciate any help you may give so that I could understand the belief only context. I know that no one can earn their way to heaven by good works. I also know it’s all a product of God’s grace that provides salvation. But my understanding is that true believers – those who believe in Jesus as Messiah, who died and rose again and is our only path to heaven must also strive to live their lives in an ongoing process of becoming more like Jesus and without that second part just belief only seems to put one in the shallow ‘demon’ category. Please clarify.

Thank you for your website I have learned so much from it. I understand what James was teaching, that saving faith in Christ would produce good works, not that works saves a person. James I believe was talking to believers. My question is this, why did James have to tell them this at all? If faith in Christ produces good works (and I believe it does) and James was speaking to believers, this is something that just comes natural, to me it is like telling a fish to swim, or a bird to fly. In my opinion it seems to have caused a lot of confusion to those who believe a christian can lose their salvation. Why do you think God inspired James to write it like this? Do you think maybe it was to cause us to dig deeper into His word? This is a prime example I believe of why it is so important to rightly divide the Word of God. I know God in His foreknowledge saw the confusion it would cause, and I know He had a reason for wording it this way. Do you have an opinion of what it was?

Also in a casual reading of James 2:24 in my little finite mind it just seems like a lost man could be confused into thinking if he has good works he is saved. If James would have stopped at verse 23 when he referenced Romans 4:3 it just seems to me it could have avoided so much confusion, but then he dropped the bomb in verse 24. In your opinion why do you think verse 24 was necessary. I would like to know your thoughts on this. I am in no way saying James got it wrong, I believe every word of scripture is God breathed. I just wonder why with God knowing it would cause confusion, why didn’t he word it where there would be no confusion?

Who will be raptured before the tribulation, who will become Martyrs? Better yet will those who will be raptured be those who have not sinned against the commandments and those Martyred those who believe yet sinned therefore must suffer as a Martyr during the tribulation?