Lately on some of the radio broadcasts of sermons by popular Pastors I have noticed them referring to the land of Judea and Samaria as Palestine. One saying that Jesus was buried in a Palestinian tomb and another saying that God had made a Palestinian covenant with Joshua. I have searched out the word Palestine in several of the popular translations and it appears only once in the KJV Bible and none of the others. Am I missing something?

In Genesis 10, why is the reference made to Gentiles when the Jewish faith had not yet been established?

I believe that once we are saved through grace we become a new creation and cannot lose our salvation. I do not believe that there are any exceptions to this. I also believe what the Bible says with regards to taking the mark of the beast and how it will result in eternal torment, and there are also no exceptions in this regard.

So if we look at the two absolutes of eternal salvation through grace and eternal damnation by taking the mark of the beast, there surely needs to be a physical break between these two requirements to ensure that they can both be met without contradiction. And by my understanding, that break must be the Rapture. Does this make sense, and can this be used as proof that the Rapture needs to occur before the Tribulation?

I have kidney and pancreas failure, and have been on dialysis for 2.5 years now. We have been praying for healing for years, even before it got to the dialysis stage. My prayer is that even if its only a month before the Rapture and that is all the time I have as a ‘well’ person, I still ask for it, partly because its horrible to be sick all the time, and partly because I think it would be a tremendous witness in the power of our Lord to go from having barely any kidney function, and no pancreatic function, to all of a sudden being as healthy as any healthy person is. I have been blessed beyond belief with my faith, my husband, and finances. But this decaying body is always hanging over my head, and its seems like each month we are here on this earth it gets worse and worse. I guess the question is, since my motives aren’t 100% please-heal-me-so-I-can-be-a-witness and honestly more geared towards wanting to be healthy even for a short time, will this negate my prayers?

When a believer dies, I know they go to be with the Lord. My question is, if they are already in the presence of God, are they still going to be judged according to their works? Doesn’t scripture say that we will each give an account of our works?

I have something I have been wondering about for a while now. When we pray, we say the word “Amen” at the end of our prayers. Being as how this was the name of an Egyptian god, are we to pronounce it as Jews do, which I have heard pronounced as “Ahmain”, or should we not use the word at all? I don’t want to be offering up prayers to a pagan god. Please help me as this has been bothering me.

Were Pilate and his wife saved after the death of Jesus? And what was the purpose of his wife receiving the dream? My friend says it was the Romans who killed Jesus and she is right but it was the Jews who betrayed him and in that sense the Jews killed him. How does one answer the question?

I have a question about divorce. What happens if you get a divorce and remarry in the future? The Bible says that adulterers will not see the kingdom of God so does that mean if a believer gets a divorce and remarries that they are no longer saved and that God is done with them? Does God then hate them? would He rather watch a married couple tear each other apart and be in His will for marriage than have them apart? I am deeply confused. All I know is that for many reasons I don’t want to be with my husband but I also don’t want to loose God. What can I do?

I was doing a study on something else the other day and my eyes fell on Revelation 13:13. I kept on thinking about it and wondered what it really means, if there could be any link at all between this scripture and the increase in reports about meteorites all over the world. I would like to know what is your opinion about this.

In Will All Israel Be Saved?, you said, “According to Zechariah 12:10, sometime during the Great Tribulation the Lord will pour out His Spirit of grace and supplication causing the eyes of the Jewish people to be opened to the realization that Jesus has been their Messiah all along.” I thought that this was done back in the Ezekiel 38 war at the onset of the tribulation…when God supernaturally intervenes and defeats Israel’s enemies. Are these two separate events then?