In doing a study on the 70 weeks of Daniel I’m confused with some of the dates. From your past studies I’ve learned that the 70 year servitude of the nation began in 605 BC when Nebuchadnezzar attacked Jerusalem after defeating Egypt and Assyria at the Battle of Carchemish. Then in 535 BC the Persians freed the Jews who began returning to Israel and rebuilt the altar. But the decree by the Persian king Artaxerxes to allow the Jews to return and rebuild the city of Jerusalem wasn’t until March, 445 BC My question is what happened between 535 and 444 BC? Were the Jewish people returning to Jerusalem during this time even though the decree had not been given yet?

My son asked us if we could ask God any question what would it be. He said he would ask if he loved all of us so much, why did he choose the Jewish people as his chosen people. Why them?

My question refers to your answer for Election or Choice. In your answer you state, “Mankind has now learned that time only governs physical beings. God, being Spirit (John 4:24) is therefore not limited by the constraints of time.” I can fully understand how God who created time, can be outside of time, and therefore can see the end from the beginning, but I do not believe that being ‘outside of time’ applies to anything other than God. For instance, although Angels are spirit beings too, I believe that the scriptures prove that they are not outside of time.

I’m having trouble reconciling the “unknown day” of the Lords return with the battle of Armageddon, Matthew 24:29 says “Immediately after the tribulation of those days” which means the Great Tribulation is over, then has the fighting not stopped or does this just mean the Bowl judgments are over? Because at the Lord’s return he destroys the armies that have compassed Jerusalem, can you please clarify the sequence of events.

In one of your commentaries on the Psalms you wrote this about the Jews: ” Much of this will come from the realization that God will have just intervened in a battle where they were on the brink of defeat and given them a resounding victory.” My first question is : could this statement become a truth, a reality in a Christian believer’s life too? I mean, when we face seemingly insolvable problems, troubles and hardships. And what can we do? Only asking the Lord to intervene in the mentioned way is enough or there are conditions?

Why don’t Jews help Christian Zionists out financially if they have trouble with funding? I’ve always thought Zionism was a one-way street. You love them but they don’t love you!

I have a question concerning God’s judgement on nations. Given what Christ has done to redeem believers and that the Holy Spirit is in the world to convict of sin and to draw men to Christ, does God still judge nations in the Church Age as He did in the Old Testament? Or is judgement now reserved for the Tribulation period?

In Romans 15:1-3, Paul tells us to please others, preferably our neighbor, for their own good. He then goes on to say that Jesus Christ did not come on this earth to please himself at all. However, in Galatians 1:10, Paul said that if were to please men, he would not be a servant of God. When comparing these two verses together, what do they mean? Are we to please God or please others?

I believe that the Bible teaches that the Lord will come for His church before the Tribulation. But I was reading an article by another Bible teacher/author who says that there are no verses to support the timing of the Rapture being before the Tribulation. He seemed to have kind of a snarky attitude about it, too. I don’t know why, as fellow believers in the Lord Jesus, why some get so worked up about it and make the claim that it’s a deception for us to believe in the pre-tribulation rapture. What do you think?

I am struggling with thoughts about my salvation. I accepted Jesus when I was young. I fell away many times and always came back to him. Did I desensitize myself to the Holy Spirit? I feel cold and uncaring.