In Matt. 24:15-16 the Lord warned all who are in Judea to flee to the mountains immediately upon hearing of the Abomination. Yet, did I understand you to imply that only the 144,000 who are sealed will do so? Would you please clarify this matter? What about other post-Rapture Messianic Jews and believing Gentiles who live in Judea when the Abomination happens? Surely many/most of them will also heed the warning. Will they be safeguarded as well? Also, did I read somewhere that those to be protected will be flown to Petra on eagles wings, or some such?

A young man I sometimes see at work asked me “Is it true there are zombies in the Bible”? He was referring to Matthew 27:51-53. I read it to him and did my best to explain. How would you have done it?

I recently read an article that stated that the rapture of “we who are alive and remain” would not occur immediately after the dead in Christ are resurrected, but instead we would be raptured 40 days after the dead in Christ come out of their graves. The article stated that the example for this is from Christ’s resurrection at the same time that believers came out of the tombs. He ascended and took them with him 40 days later and that is the model for the rapture of the church. What is your opinion? Is it possible we will be on earth for 40 days after the dead in Christ are resurrected?

I can’t seem to find an answer to this question. In 1 Thessalonians 4:16 and 1 Corinthians 15:52, the verses reference the dead rising first during the rapture. I don’t believe in soul-sleep, so I am confused by the word “dead.” I try to make sense of it by thinking those verses refer to the dead, but saved in Christ, rising first and the church being caught up second. But I’m confused as to why God would want to raise up dead bodies. Do you know what I mean? Most of those bodies have long ago rotted away and turned to dust, so what is going to be raised up if their spirits are already in Heaven? Thanks so much for your help!

Orthodox Jews claim that Matthew 1:23 misquoted Isiah 7:14. They say that word “Alma” means young woman and not a virgin. And the word for virgin is “Bethulah”. Is that true?

Recently I’ve heard of books by a well known author who says the Bible makes no distinction between Israel and the Church, so when Revelation talks of Israel it really means the Church. Also, he holds that Revelation was written before 70

You’re always very honest in answering everyone’s questions, so I need yet another honest answer from you. My wife and I have two girls (ages 8 and 6), and we made the mistake of allowing Santa Claus to be “real” to them. Now that the oldest is starting to figure out truth from fiction, it won’t be long before the truth about Santa comes up. When it does, how do we explain that Santa’s not real….but Jesus is? We are a family of believers, so the girls have been taught about Jesus throughout their short lives. Unfortunately, they’ve believed in Santa this whole time, too. So how do we tell them the truth without jeopardizing the reality of Jesus?

I am currently reading your article “The 144,000 of Rev 7 and 14” and this question comes to mind. Does Israel have any idea of just how many of their people come from which tribe? I am sure The Lord does and He will use that knowledge in selecting the 144,000 Jewish men for teaching in the Tribulation. That would be an interesting thing to know, I think.

Because there are 3 major views of when the Church will be raptured and very knowledgeable scholars on all sides ( pre, mid, and post tribulation) and because Jesus alludes to all three (Church of Philadelphia pre, Church of Thyatira mid, Laodicea post) is it feasible that all three are correct?

The destruction of the northern invasion’s troops and allies with obvious supernatural intervention is said to show the Lord’s greatness and make Him known among nations (Ezek. 38:23), but apparently, this is not the same as the kind of acknowledgment that Zech. 12:10 speaks of, with Israel turning to Jesus as Messiah as a nation? I don’t understand how Israel could proceed to follow the anti-Christ if they had turned back to the Lord after the Ezek. battle. Ezek. 39:22 says: “The house of Israel shall know that I am the Lord their God, from that day forward”.

How can they know that and then proceed to follow the anti-Christ? Is Jesus as Messiah still out of their minds until the second coming and instead, Israel thinks that the anti-Christ is the messiah until then, and they are following God without Jesus by building the temple? The timing doesn’t fit the whole picture otherwise.