I understand the passages you quoted in your answer on the Doctrine of Election and see it as you do. However, I’ve always been confused with Romans 9: 21-23.

This makes it sound as if God purposely makes certain people for destruction. This has never been very clear to me.

My question is in reference to the question “how can a believer be lukewarm?” Could you reconcile where the Bible tells us that Jesus wishes we are either hot or cold, but because we are lukewarm, He will spew us out of his mouth?

Unfortunately, I feel that I am probably a lukewarm Christian, continuing to fall into a particular sin. I know my sin is wrong, I really want to stop, but I am having hard times brother.

I’ve read that we have so many manuscripts and portions of manuscripts that we can be confident that we have the scripture pretty much as it was written, but other places, I read that this factoid is misleading, that the manuscripts are not as complete as we are led to believe. A more modest claim I have heard is that we have enough that we can be certain our scripture is doctrinally correct. And, of course, even in Christian scholarly circles, there is controversy about whether one verse was added, etc.

More specifically, I was discussing the bible with my college-age daughter and her pseudo-intellectual boyfriend, both unsaved, and he said that our concept of Satan and all the scripture pertaining to Satan had been added later by the Catholic church, that our original new testament did not portray him as the adversary of God and that the Jews don’t view him that way, either. News to me. I didn’t pay it much heed, considering the source, but my husband (an Episcopalian) nodded in agreement. He said he had seen a documentary on TV that showed manuscripts side by side with the additions. Can you give me any guidance here?

You said, “There’s a very good reason why the New Testament doesn’t make more specific reference to the 70th Week of Daniel. As Gabriel pointed out to Daniel, it’s for his people and his holy city. The church is not involved and won’t be here.”

Question: Are you saying that the purpose/audience of the OT is Israel and the purpose/audience of the NT is for the Church?

Also, Jesus spoke in the Olivet Discourse about the coming destruction of the Temple in Jerusalem which was for Daniel’s people and his holy city, so not sure why it would follow that he wouldn’t also speak about the 70th week? The argument doesn’t seem to follow. What am I missing?

How do I answer the following questions from one who takes a historical perspective on prophecy, does not believe in a literal 3.5 year Great Tribulation, and thinks it began at the destruction of the Jewish Temple in 70AD?

1. He claims that Jesus says the Great Tribulation begins with the destruction of Jerusalem, citing Lk 21:20-24.

2. He says the NT makes no mention of 7 years, though it deals heavily with chronologies and times, and asks, “How could that omission be possible if it is as clear and important as you maintain? Were Jesus and the apostles not aware of this prophetic time structure that is key to your viewpoint?”

3. Jesus speaks of Jerusalem being trodden underfoot by the gentiles during this same period, commencing at the destruction of Jerusalem. Revelation marks this as one of the four 3-1/2 year periods. Preaching to the ends of the world is one of the 3-1/2 year periods of Revelation – did that not start with the apostles?

A terrible terrible event just took place and as a Christian I have been called upon to comment. My son’s niece had her first baby. Yesterday we had a shower for them with the christening to take place today. Now the sad part. The baby was laying in bed with both parents and when they awoke the baby was dead. What a sad turn of events. Could you give me any strength to pass on?

I recently had a discussion with my wife about how my “works” will be rewarded in heaven. We are both born again Christians and believe faith in Christ is the only way into heaven. Since my wife and I are one flesh, will God offer His reward as a package deal?

Why did Jesus fold the linen burial cloth after His resurrection? I never noticed this.

The Gospel of John (20:7) tells us that the napkin, which was placed over the face of Jesus, was not just thrown aside like the grave clothes, but was neatly folded and placed where Jesus had lain.

I read an account that says when the master of a house got up from the dinner table, if he just discarded his napkin it meant he was finished and the servants could begin cleaning up, but if he folded his napkin it meant he was coming back to the table.

This account says that by folding His burial cloth Jesus was saying He was coming back. It this true?

My son has encountered a group of very godly young people who have been actively challenging him to follow God with his whole being. They teach that you must be saved only through the sacrifice of Jesus, however,they have just told him they do not believe that Jesus was God, but was a sinless man who lived a perfect life. They do not, therefore, believe in the Trinity.

When my son asked the leadership “what benefit do you gain by believing that Jesus wasn’t God” they laughed and said more than you can believe.

My questions: Are these people saved? What should be the response to them?

My question is this, God told Moses that prior to him, nobody knew God by His Name, YHWH, which I understand to be rendered “LORD” throughout the Bible. However, when you read earlier in the book of Genesis, the word “LORD” continues to appear. I could reconcile this if it were used only during the narrative portions of the text, but it is used in the quotes of people throughout the book, both gentile and Jew. Am I taking it too literally when I understand God to have said that Moses was the first person to know Him as YHWH?