You are one of the Bible teachers that I respect a lot, and I believe God truly anoints you since He has blessed me in so many ways thru your wonderful teaching. I have a question regarding salvation for people who are retarded or in a state of mental illness which makes them incapable of understanding the Gospel. How can we reach these people so they can be saved? Will they still be saved if they never accept Christ as their Lord and Savior?

I have a question regarding the so called “distinction” between Israel and the church. I understand that all dispensational scholars say that ethnic Israel has specific promises given to them (such as land etc) that apply ONLY to them. However, as I read Galatians 3:26-29 this does not seem to be the case:

You are all sons of God through faith in Jesus Christ…If you belong to christ, then YOU ARE ABRAHAM’S SEED, and heirs according to the promise.

Doesn’t this say that there’s no difference between Israel and the Church?

Since we are saved and won’t be judged because we believe in Jesus Christ as our savior then how will the people living before Jesus be handled, since they never had the chance to believe or not?

Could you please tell me why the Lord’s Prayer is not fully spoken in the NIV Bible but is completed in the King James version. Also there are quite a few anomalies between these two versions of the Bible.

I love your site so much and know where to come when I have questions.

When Jesus died on the cross and paid our debt past-present and future why do we have to continually ask for forgiveness-repent our daily sins if they are already covered? I know about keeping in union with Jesus but asking Him over and over for forgivness wouldn’t that be like us not having faith we are already forgiven for them? Would it be showing that we don’t believe that the future sins have been foriven?

Do you think the Lord ever gets tired of us repeating the same thing over and over in our prayers and instead He would rather have prayers of praise from us and prayers to Him for others who don’t have a relationship with him? Sometimes I feel like Jesus has heard the same thing from me so much I wonder if He is still listening. Thanks for always being there for our questions

We know that God will one day destroy Satan. but why didn’t God throw Satan into lake of fire immediately after he sinned?

Thank you so much for answering all of my questions. You provide such a great service to Christians helping to deepen their faith.

From the letters John, Jude and Peter- in addition to many other scripture writings, it is very clear that the early church expected Christ to return in their lifetime. If they were so close to the Truth by a generation or less, why did they not have a clearer understanding that it would be at least thousands of years until the end of the age?

Why did they not have a better understanding of New Testament prophecy? We seem to have a better understanding in this century than any generation after the birth of Christ. In contrast, the Old Testament prophets clearly understood that the birth of Christ would not occur in their lifetime much less 500 years later. Why the difference in prophetic understanding between Old and New Testament writers?

“Be not unwise, but understanding what the will of the Lord is…and be NOT DRUNK with wine, wherein is EXCESS, but be FILLED with the Spirit” Eph. 5:17-18. Filled means “totally controlled”. How does one accomplish being totally controlled by the Spirit of God, when one has some of the other “spirit” in them???

I shudder to think of those weak folks, whom having read the OK for alcohol, will fall.

Lord help us to abandon all for Him in these last days.

How do you interpret Proverbs 23:34 and reconcile it with it being okay to drink alcoholic beverages? It seems if one should not even look upon wine when it is fermented (as Proverbs 23:34 says, and I believe this means to look upon in the light of desiring to drink it), then God does not want us to drink it at all because of the sin and degradation it leads one into.

Many go to the wedding feast where Jesus turned the water into wine to justify drinking alcoholic beverages because if it wasn’t okay then surely Jesus would not have turned water into wine. But has anyone thought it possible the water that Jesus turned to wine was not fermented wine? In light of Proverbs 23:34, I believe Jesus turned the water into the pure juice of the vine (not fermented). Otherwise, Jesus has contradicted His own words. I don’t believe Jesus would do something God said not to do. I don’t believe Jesus would have provided fermented wine to those at the wedding feast knowing there would be some who would consume too much and end up drunk and committing other sins that drunkenness leads to. If that were the case, then Jesus himself would have been a stumbling block and a hypocrite.

Paul said it was okay to “take a little wine for thy stomach’s sake” (medicinal purposes). I believe that would be the only occasion to take of alcohol during biblical times. Nowadays we have so much “medicine” for various illnesses that do not contain alcohol that there is no excuse to consume alcohol in any form.

Can you prove beyond a shadow of a doubt that Jesus turned the water into (fermented) wine?

I am interested in your thoughts on Deuteronomy 32 verse 39 thanks.