I enjoy your website very much. So filled with valuable information. Thanks so much.

Just briefly, are the boundaries of the land of Israel today the same as they were in the Old Testament? My husband said he doesn’t think the boundaries from the OT could be definitely defined by today’s standards. (In other words, they could give some of what they have to Palestine without upsetting things.)

Thanks for any insight into this you might have!

Jack what happened to the Earth between Gen. 1 and Gen. 2? If like you say there was a great Gap in time, and I believe this, then what happened and why didn’t God the Father tell us what happened?

It seems that the Earth was hit by a asteroid or comet or what have you, evidence suggest this. Mars being pitted on one side most likely coming from what some claim that a planet exploded creating the belt. Most likely the Super Volcanoes that are being talked about lately had gone off before.

Did these apocalyptic events take place millions of years ago during the revolt of the Angels or did this happen during the time of the Great Flood?

Thank you, again, for your dedication to the work of our Lord.

I have a problem with the time line regarding the return of Babylon to the status of a world center for commerce and government. What a tremendous accomplishment to build Babylon from what it is today to what it seems to be at the time of its destruction. When I find that it is all to take place during the seven year tribulation it seems impossible.

What are your thoughts on this? Where have I erred?

Two quick questions. In Acts 21: 38-39, it says the chief capt. asked if Paul was a certain Egyptian, but Paul concurred that he was a Jew from Tarsus. Why did the capt. ask if he was Egyptian? I’ve just always assumed that Paul was Jewish. 2nd question-I kind of think chap.s 21 & 22 are very symbolic of no exclusion, no excuse. At the end of 21 and the beginning of 22, we have Paul stating that he is a Jew by birth(Acts 21:39), a Greek by education(Acts 22:3), a Roman by citizenship (Acts 22:25). And then in chap. 23, he is also claiming to be a Pharisee by posterity(Acts 23:6).

I’m wanting to discuss this with my wife, but I want to make sure I’m explaining it correctly. When Paul stands to share his testimony of the Gospel and his conversion to “The Way” we see that he is coming, not as a member of one party dispensing his faith on all, but as an equal member of all parties involved in this congregation.

To me, this seems to be showing one of God’s profound ways of offering the same message of Salvation to the Jews, Greeks, Romans and Pharisees, while at the same time leaving no one with an excuse if they reject. Paul is able to come to each party as one of their own. We also learn in another one of Paul’s letters where he says,” I have become all things to all men, so that I might win them to the Glory of God”. What are your thoughts on this one?

In all of scripture I have found but one verse that appears to back up the traditionally Catholic doctrine of transubstantiation (i.e. Presence of Christ dwells literally in the bread and wine). That being 1 Corinthians 10:16 “Is not the cup of thanksgiving for which we give thanks a participation in the blood of Christ? And is not the bread that we break a participation in the body of Christ?”

I just wanted to get your take on this verse, which has confounded this ex-Catholic.

I will begin by thanking you for the work you put into your web site it has been very helpful and uplifting at times.

I have a question about your gap theory idea. I was wondering how you explain Ezekiel 28:13 ” Thou hast been in Eden the garden of God; every precious stone [was] thy covering, the sardius, topaz, and the diamond, the beryl, the onyx, and the jasper, the sapphire, the emerald, and the carbuncle, and gold: the workmanship of thy tabrets and of thy pipes was prepared in thee in the day that thou wast created.” If Satan fell between Genesis 1:1 and 1:2 then how could he have been in the garden of Eden in such splendor until iniquity was found in him in verse 15?

I understand that many Biblical scholars believe Jesus’ triumphal entry into Jerusalem was on Sunday, April 6, A.D. 32; His death on the cross was Thursday afternoon, April 10; and He arose before sunrise the Sunday of April 13. Pentecost, the birth of the Church, was fifty days later. While only God knows the precise year and timing of the Rapture, is there any Biblical reference that may give a clue that it could occur on a “birthday” of the Church?

If a man is a believer in Christ, but his wife is not, can she receive salvation from God based on her husband’s commitment to our Lord and Saviour?

I am wondering what to make of Proverbs 8 and the discussion of “Wisdom.” How does this chapter relate to Jesus? Also, what are Christians to make of Apocryphal books like Wisdom of Solomon?

I have been listening to your bible studies and am learning a lot. Thank you for your ministry!

I sometimes read/listen to (a well known commentator) and ran across an interesting analysis of Paul’s use of the phrase “fullness of the Gentiles. He says, when Paul uses this phrase he is talking about a Gentile church which is going to become so rich and full in its spiritual riches that it will awaken again the envy of Israel. Do you think this is possibly what Paul meant?