In the book of Exodus, when God gave Moses the directives in the construction of the tabernacle, He listed multiple times that the thread colors of gold, blue, purple, and scarlet were to be used. Now moving ahead to Revelation 17:4, we are told that the woman on the beast is arrayed in purple and scarlet and was glittering in gold. Does the common use of these colors (including Revelation’s absence of the color blue) reveal specific clues to us about the woman on the beast, and if so, what could they be?

How can a church tell someone they cannot join the church because they are not married to the person they are living with, knowing the person is hungering to get their life straightened out? Didn’t Jesus give the living water to sinners, the ones who thirst after the Word?

A pastor who I respect greatly for his faithfulness and God given ability to teach, once discussed the Babylon contradiction with me and as time and circumstances develop I believe that he was close to the answer or at least a possible explanation.

On Rev 17 and Zech. 5 two points seem to be in conflict until one thing is taken into consideration, the way literal and symbolic seems to travel in parallel track.

Babylon on the plains of Shinar might point to a political or military center of power. Babylon over the seven hills might be pointing to a religious center of power. What do you think?

Enjoy your site and have learned a lot. I am confused about 1Cor 14: 22-25. It seems to say one thing then says the opposite. It says tongues are a sign to the unbeliever then it says he’ll say you’re mad. Then it says prophesying serves not for them that believe not, but them which believe. v24 says but if all prophesy and there comes in one that believes not,or one unlearned, he is convinced of all. Can you tell where I’m not getting it?

Thanks for taking your time out of your day to answer my question.

I’ve been a fire fighter medic for the last 18 years. I helped more people than I can remember. I don’t write this to boast, I state it as a matter of fact.

My friend of 13 years took his life day before last. He was unique, a true free thinker. I’ve never met anyone who looked at things or quested for things in the way that he did. I’ve never been around philosophy, I took it in college but didn’t really get it. My friend Pat’s mind worked that way.

He was bigger than I am, stronger than I am, and he fought fire better than most. I considered him as my colleague, my friend. I knew his wife, his children.

I believe in God. I understand that God has reasons and I am but his servant. I do my best to do what I believe I am called to do. I am not afraid to die. Don’t get me wrong, I’m not ready. I have a wife and my own kids, but I have made my peace that if it be God’s will to take me due to my job then I will not be afraid.

Pat didn’t die in a fire, he did not give his life for another. He took his. I spent part of yesterday looking to find if suicide is a sin. We are saved through our faith and not of our works. How can my friend be sent to Hell for eternity? I believe with all that I am that God is a loving God. God had to have seen that my friend was hurting and needed help. God does not punish those in need does he?

Where is my friend? God would not have given up on this man I just know it. I’m struggling with this, Can you help me know God’s plan with Pat?

I have read a comparison between the doctrine of Islam and Christianity and it states that Mohammad and the Arabs are descendants of Ishmael, which Islam claims Jesus said by their interpretation of Matthew 21:42-44, would supersede the Israelite nation.

What is the true story behind Mat. 21:42-44?

It is a fact that the battle that brings Russia’s invasion of Israel to an end results in the destruction of “all men of war,” Ezekiel 39:20. This ought to make it obvious that the battle described in Ezekiel 38:21-22 and 39:1-6 is the very same battle commonly referred to as “Armageddon.” Compare Isaiah 34:1-6, 63:1-6, Revelation 14:19-20, 16:12-16, and 19:11-21. It is quite plain that “all men of war” are destroyed in this same battle in which the Lord destroys Russia and her allies, Ezekiel 39:20.

If this battle should then occur before the Tribulation, as some teach, or even right after the beginning of the Tribulation, as others teach, then who would fight during the Tribulation? Remember, “all men of war” are destroyed in this battle. I take this to mean that every human being who has “war” in their heart will be destroyed from among men. Who then would fight during the Tribulation if “all men of war” have already been wiped out when the Lord destroys Russia and her allies? Well…??? What do you think Jack? Is this right?

I was married to a non-believer who after many years of marriage chose to leave the marriage based on our differences. I wouldn’t allow certain behaviors in our home, drugs, drinking, and other illegal activities, for my safety and my child’s. He attributed my resistance to my faith (not to mention they were illegal) and told me I wasn’t any fun. He didn’t want to live with the rules and ethics that I needed and lived by, and even felt judged though I didn’t, because I asked him to keep these things out of our home. We went to counseling with a Christian counselor who met with us together and separately, who eventually told me our marriage was over because there was no desire on my husband’s part to be my husband and give up the things that were destroying our marriage, my love for him, my trust in him and my respect for him. We remained separated for 4 years before mutually filing for divorce and now today are on good terms and he respects my faith as mine, though he wants nothing to do with it.

I was told by the marriage counselor that my divorce was permitted by 1 Corinthians 7:15, and that if I remarry, it would not be adultery (Matt. 5: 30-31)

Can I have your opinion on this verdict? I have met a great man who I am interested in, but he would like further clarification as he too is a Christian and there was not infidelity in my marriage that led to the divorce.

I question your statement that “scholars have looked for centuries for a fresh water lake the Israelites could have crossed and of course none exists.” I believe that you are mistaken.

The “Red Sea” by which Moses led Israelites on their exodus from Egypt was not the body of water now called the Red Sea. The Hebrew word is Yam Suph [soof], meaning “Sea of Reeds.” It is now believed that the Sea of Reeds “was perhaps located at the Southern extension of the present Lake Mensaleh.” (The Interpreters Dictionary of the Bible, Volume 4, Nashville: Abingdon Press, 1962, page 21)

G. Ernest Wright (Biblical Archaeology, Abridged Edition, Philadelphia: Westminster Press, 1960, page 38) writes, “They chose ‘the way of the wilderness by the Reed Sea’ (Ex.13.18) This, and not ‘Red Sea’, is the correct rendering of the Hebrew Yam Suph, and it is highly improbable that we should identify it with the northern arm of the Red Sea known today as the Gulf of Suez.”

I feel sure that in the light of this information you will amend your previous answer to the Reed or Red Sea question, so as not to mislead your readers. What matters is not the location of the miracle of God’s providence, but the fact of it occurring. That the scene was most likely – from the available evidence – to have been the lake and not the sea does not diminish God’s power, not his care for his people.

There is a wrong teaching that baptism in water is necessary for salvation. They use mainly the verses Mark 16:16, Acts 2:38, 1 Peter 3:18 and John 3:5. I would like to know explanation of these verses that these verses do not mean that baptism is necessary for salvation but grace by faith only.