My question is this, yesterday night a minister on TV said that Jesus had to go to hell and suffer as a sinner would. I know that the cross is much deeper than what we have made it out to be, but I am not sure about this doctrine or teaching mentioned by this TV minister. I know that our Lord had to suffer (more than we will ever comprehend) but where in scripture is it mentioned that our Lord had to suffer in hell? I know what Matthew 12:40 says but it does not say that He had to suffer there.

1 Peter 3: 18-19 says that Jesus went and preached to the spirits in prison. Scriptures like Ephesians 4:8-9 and Colossians 2:15 speak of a victorious Lord, I don’t get the suffering Jesus teaching, is it scriptural? Lastly Jesus said on the cross IT IS FINISHED!

We Christians in the US have had life on easy street. How much do you think that will change before the rapture?

I had just started reading your article on “tithing” and guess what? Having been taught that way, you have accepted it as Gospel and have not studied any further !

Malachi 1 vs 1 states “The burden of the word of the Lord to ISRAEL by Malachi” notice it was not to the Gentile church who incidentally only became part of the Covenant during Acts 10.

PLEASE read Deuteronomy 14 vs 22 to 29 regarding the tithing laws as given to Israel by GOD through Moses. Nowhere and I mean nowhere do the scriptures say anybody has to give 10% of their finances to God. The ‘tithe’ was grain, new wine, oil , firstlings of your herds and flocks. I have heard that ” we are not all farmers today so our salaries have replaced the grain etc” . Do these people not realise that Almighty God would have known that and would have made provision for that? The ONLY purpose of the tithe was to feed the Levites , the stranger, the fatherless and the widows within your gates after YOU have eaten to show that you fear the Lord. GOD DOES NOT NEED YOUR GOODS !

The Levitical priesthood has ended (for now) and so there is no one mandated by God to receive ‘tithes’.

By all means give and give liberally but do it with cheerfulness and don’t call it ‘tithing’ which was an old covenant law. If you accept any ‘law’ now you are not under Grace and you will be judged by the law!

I enjoy your website and appreciate the time you put into it.

My interest was piqued earlier this week to look deeper into our Lord’s birth and Crucifixion. From what I can tell, based upon Matt 2, Jesus was born in 6/5 BC based upon Herod’s death in 4 BC. Is this your understanding? Luke 3:23 tells us that Jesus was around 30 when He began His ministry. If Jesus was baptized in 29 AD, then Jesus would have been around 34. How do you reconcile Luke with Matt? Does around 30 include the possibility that He was 34 or so?

Could you please explain what this verse means?

“For we must all appear before the judgment seat of Christ, that each one may receive the things done in the body, according to what He has done, whether good or bad.” (2 Corinthians 5:10)

Some Christians believe it is a sin to drink wine, and that whenever the Bible refers to wine, it really meant grape juice. I always thought that new wine was juice, and “wine” meant just that. We know that Jesus turned water into wine, and Col. 2:16 tells us not to let another judge us in food or drink. Can you please clarify this?

Where did the whole Lilith myth originate? Could you elaborate on this?

RE: Solving the Three Day Three Night Mystery. So if He died on a Thursday how did we start to celebrate His death on Friday?

I’m doing a study in the Gospel of John, and I’m in Chapter 5.

Vs. 25 & 28 refer to “an hour” – is that referring to the giving of the Holy Spirit on Pentecost? Or is it referring to His resurrection? Vs. 28 seems to be pointing to the final resurrection.

This “hour” seems to correspond with the giving of eternal life, an event in the future. Was eternal life imparted to OT saints only after Jesus’ resurrection? I’m thinking of the verse in Matthew 27 where the tombs were opened and “many” were resurrected.

I find it interesting that in vs. 37, Jesus says that “you have neither heard His voice at any time nor seen His form”. But in vs. 25 & 28, Jesus is talking about “hearing the voice”. Is there any correlation there?

Do you have any information on Simon of Cyrene? Anything that you can give me even if it is just your personal opinion would be greatly appreciated.